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Prompt: While absolutism seemed to manifest itself in17th century France, England was a different matter. Unlike France, England had a history (perhaps even a liberal history) of parliamentary cooperation between the nobles in the House of Lords and the land owning commoners in the House of Commons. This made for quite a political contrast.What contributed to the rise of constitutionalism in England?Why did this work in England and not in France? or the rest of central Europe?Some links that might help:http://www.historydoctor.net/Advanced%20Placement%20European%20History/Notes/triumph_of_constitutionalism_Part_One.htmhttp://www.historydoctor.net/Advanced%20Placement%20European%20History/Notes/constitutionalism_in_Great_Britain_Part_Two.htm http://www.surveyworldhistory.com/unit-21-absolutism-vs-constitutionalism.htmlhttp://sourcebooks.fordham.edu/Halsall/mod/modsbook06.asp

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